If a machine has a mechanical advantage of 2, the output force is how many times the input force (ignoring losses)?

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Multiple Choice

If a machine has a mechanical advantage of 2, the output force is how many times the input force (ignoring losses)?

Explanation:
The main idea is that mechanical advantage shows how many times the input force is amplified to become the output force in an ideal system. If the mechanical advantage is 2, the output force is twice the input force (F_out = 2 × F_in). For example, pushing with 100 N would yield about 200 N at the load, ignoring losses like friction. The other possibilities would correspond to different MA values: half would be 0.5, the same would be 1, and four times would be 4. So the output force is two times the input force.

The main idea is that mechanical advantage shows how many times the input force is amplified to become the output force in an ideal system. If the mechanical advantage is 2, the output force is twice the input force (F_out = 2 × F_in). For example, pushing with 100 N would yield about 200 N at the load, ignoring losses like friction. The other possibilities would correspond to different MA values: half would be 0.5, the same would be 1, and four times would be 4. So the output force is two times the input force.

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